Asked by Nguyên Tr?ng on Jul 09, 2024

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If the risk-free interest rate is rf and equals the fund's benchmark, the portfolio's net asset value is S0, and the hedge fund manager incentive fee is 20% of profit beyond that, the incentive fee is equivalent to receiving ________ call(s) with exercise price ________.

A) .2; S0
B) 1; S0(1 + rf)
C) 1.2; S0
D) .2; S0(1 + rf)

Incentive Fee

A fee paid to a fund manager based on performance; typically a percentage of the fund's profits.

Risk-free Interest Rate

The yield from an investment that carries no risk of losing money, often linked to government securities.

Exercise Price

The predetermined price at which the option holder can buy (call option) or sell (put option) the underlying security.

  • Grasp the fundamental financial models used in evaluating hedge fund returns and incentives.
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MA
magedahmed alhalmyJul 10, 2024
Final Answer :
D
Explanation :
The incentive fee is paid on the profit above the benchmark, which is S0(1+rf) since the risk-free interest rate is rf and equals the fund's benchmark. Therefore, the profit that the hedge fund manager is entitled to receive the incentive fee is S0 - S0(1+rf) = -S0rf. As the incentive fee is 20% of this profit, it is equivalent to receiving 0.2 * (-S0rf) = -0.2 * S0 * rf. The negative sign indicates that this payment serves as a short call option, as the manager is delivering the option to the investor. The strike price is S0 since it is the net asset value of the portfolio. Therefore, the answer is option D, which indicates that it is equivalent to receiving 0.2 calls with an exercise price of S0(1+rf).