In the eighteenth century, how did the number of men eligible to vote in Britain compare to the number of men eligible to vote in the American colonies?

A) It was approximately equal because Britain controlled the American colonies.
B) It was more than ten times greater in America due to the wide distribution of property.
C) It was vastly different because the practice of voting did not yet exist in Britain.
D) It was only slightly higher in Britain because British governmental systems had been in existence longer.
E) It was more than ten times greater in Britain because more men there had an economic stake in society.

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Irvin Iribarren · Accepted Answer

Final Answer : B, Explanation :  In the American colonies, men were eligible to vote if they owned property, which led to a wider distribution of property ownership and therefore a larger number of eligible voters. In contrast, in Britain, only a small portion of men who owned property were eligible to vote, meaning that the number of eligible voters was much smaller.

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