Asked by Christopher Massieu on May 12, 2024

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A 40-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has a hernia. He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

A) "No need to worry. Most men your age develop hernias."
B) "A hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles."
C) "A hernia is the result of prenatal growth abnormalities that are just now causing problems."
D) "I'll have to have your physician explain this to you."

Hernia

A medical condition where an organ or fatty tissue squeezes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle or connective tissue.

Abdominal Muscles

A group of muscles located in the abdomen that supports the trunk, allows movement and holds organs in place by regulating internal abdominal pressure.

Bowel Protruding

A medical condition where part of the intestine bulges through a weakened area of the abdominal wall.

  • Discern normal and abnormal outcomes in abdominal assessments.
  • Gain insight into the relevance of specific abdominal signs in relation to gastrointestinal ailments.
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Verified Answer

JB
Jessenia BarreraMay 14, 2024
Final Answer :
B
Explanation :
The nurse should explain that a hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through an abnormal opening in the muscle wall. The nurse should acknowledge the patient's concerns and not tell him not to worry about it or refer him to his physician to explain it. It is not a result of prenatal growth abnormalities.